The inputs
Because we discount the cash flows of the whole firm at WACC, the result is the enterprise value, which is why net debt is subtracted at the end. Discounting free cash flow to equity (FCFE) at the cost of equity would give the equity value directly.
The steps
- Discount each yearYear one ÷ 1.20, year two ÷ 1.44 (that is 1.20 × 1.20), year three ÷ 1.728. The results: 83.33, 76.39 and 70.02.
- Calculate the terminal valueYear-four cash = 121 × 1.05 = 127.05. Terminal value = 127.05 ÷ (0.20 − 0.05) = 127.05 ÷ 0.15 = 847.
- Discount the terminal valueIt is valued at the end of year three, so it is discounted like year three: 847 ÷ 1.728 = 490.16.
- Add up83.33 + 76.39 + 70.02 + 490.16 = 719.90 million. That is the enterprise value estimate.
- Subtract net debt and divide719.90 − 120 = 599.90 million for shareholders. ÷ 50 million shares = about EGP 12 per share.
Notice that the terminal value alone is about 490 of 720, roughly 68% of the total. Most of the value comes from an assumption about distant years.
Change one assumption
Keep everything else the same and change only the discount rate. At 18% the estimate comes to about 14.24 per share; at 22%, about 10.28. Two points in one assumption moved the result about 19% up or 14% down.
Try it with a real company
Pick a company, read its basic figures and try different assumptions. What you learn from the spread of results matters more than any single number.
Check yourself
1. Year-four cash 60 million, discount rate 15%, growth 5%. What is the terminal value?
2. EV 900 million, net debt 100 million, 40 million shares. Value per share?
Summary
- Discount FCFF at WACC, add the discounted terminal value, subtract net debt, divide by shares.
- The terminal value is usually the largest part of the result.
- A small change in the discount rate or growth moves the estimate a lot.